Re: Good thing we weren't playing for money

<henrysun909@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message 
news:aa9cea00-e83d-45c4-ae08-d07cc75a8be0@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> You hold, playing opposite Steven:
>
> AQxxx
> KQx
> Jx
> Kxx
>
> Because you believe that Edgar is right, and that opening 1nt with a 5-
> card major is one of the unforgiveable sins, you decide to open 1S.
>
> Steven surprises you by making a strong jump ****ft to 3d.  You rebid
> 3s to show your extra quality (5 to 2 of the top 3 honors) and Steven
> rebids 3nt.
>
> Do you
>
> (1) pass, playing for the sure plus and making the last mistake now?
> (2) bid 4nt, invitational, and let Steven make the last mistake?
> (3) bid 4nt, asking for key cards in diamonds, and bash to slam,
> making the last mistake yourself?
> (4) bash to slam and make the last mistake yourself?
>
> And how close do you think your decision is?
>
> (1)  Pretty clear:  Even Stig, Boris, and Eric would agree with my bid
> (2)  Kinda clear:  Maybe two out of the above named 3 would agree with
> my bid;
> (3)  It's a tossup:  If only one of the above named 3 would agree, I'd
> be happy
> (4)  Only an idiot would name names like this is a poll.
>
> Henrysun909

I want to show a hand that is too good to pass but not good enough to
force 
to slam.

It would seem that 4N should fill this role but you seem to have given it
a 
different meaning that forces me to guess.  Why do you need 4N as RKCB
when 
you would have bid it last round if that is what you want to know?  As far

as I can see you will never bid 4N in this sequence if it has the meaning 
you suggest as all hands wanting to bid it will do so a round earlier.