David Babcock wrote:
> Matchpoints, white/red, RHO deals and p*****. You are playing 15-17
> 1NT. For an auction 1m:1M:1NT, you have a version of 2-way checkback
> where 2C forces 2D. You hold
>
> Kx AJ KT9xxx Kxx
>
> Question 1. Do you open 1D or 1NT ?
>
> Suppose you open 1D. Pard replies 1H. Opps are passing throughout.
>
> Question 2: Do you rebid 1NT or 2D?
>
> Suppose you rebid 1NT. Pard now bids 2C, you dutifully bid 2D, and
> pard bids 2H, showing, in your dialect, exactly 5 hearts,
> invitational, and saying nothing else about shape.
>
> What do you bid?
Well, David, given my 1: 14 HCP points, lessened by the tight HAJ and
two bare kins, my plan is to open 1 diamond and rebid 2 diamonds. My
first plan is always to indicated the safest contract until game is
sighted.
Given the sequence you offer -- which I consider not precisely an error,
but inferior -- I now bid 3NT.
Bob
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