On May 4, 5:12 am, David Babcock <d...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
> Matchpoints, white/red, RHO deals and p*****. You are playing 15-17
> 1NT. For an auction 1m:1M:1NT, you have a version of 2-way checkback
> where 2C forces 2D. You hold
>
> Kx AJ KT9xxx Kxx
>
> Question 1. Do you open 1D or 1NT ?
>
> Suppose you open 1D. Pard replies 1H. Opps are passing throughout.
>
> Question 2: Do you rebid 1NT or 2D?
>
> Suppose you rebid 1NT. Pard now bids 2C, you dutifully bid 2D, and
> pard bids 2H, showing, in your dialect, exactly 5 hearts,
> invitational, and saying nothing else about shape.
>
> What do you bid?
>
> TIA..
>
> David
At MPs, I'd consider opening it 1nt but then decline.
Having opened 1d, the 1nt rebid is reasonable. It is easier for
responder to handle off shape 1nt rebids than offshape 1nt opening
bids.
If partner now rebids 2h, invitational, I rebid 3d to show maximum
values and a doubleton heart and 6 diamonds. With any minimum, I will
pass 2h. With a maximum and 3 hearts, I would raise to game. With a
maximum and 2 hearts I would rebid 2nt if I didn't have any surprise
distributional feature. So by my lights, bidding a suit here (2s, 3c,
3d) shows an unexpected distributional feature:
2s = a super crappy 4 card suit that for whatever reason opener by
passed in favor of a more descriptive 1nt rebid, perhaps
xxxx
Qx
AQxx
AQTx
3c = off shape with 5 diamonds and 4 clubs, perhaps
Kx
xx
AQxxx
KJxx
Note that in this case, 2=2=4=5 hands have to rebid 2nt, lest
responder, holding 3-3 in the minors, has to guess where to play.
3d = off shape with 6 diamonds, probably poorish ones in view of the
failure to rebid 2d.
I doubt that any of this is 'standard' in the sense that it has been
codified in check back auctions, but it strikes me as being 'common
sense.'
Henrysun909
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