On Apr 22, 12:27 am, StevieTee <ste...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
> Hi Everyone!
>
> OK, you are playing IMP pairs, against opponents of unknown caliber
> (of course, they self-describe as "experts," for whatever that is
> worth), you pick up with all vulnerable:
>
> 9
> 10
> KQ932
> Q109654
>
> The bidding goes:
>
> Partner RHO You LHO
> 2C* (pass) 2D** (4H)
> DBL*** (pass) ??
>
> * SAYC, strong
> ** 0 or 1 control
> *** no agreement
>
> Do you pass or pull? If you pull, what do you bid?
>
> Thanks in advance - Steve Sun
So here are the two hands in question:
9
10
KQ932
Q109654
AKxxx
AK
AJx
AKx
My understanding of the pass, after a 2c opening bid and interference,
is that it showed a hand that would have rebid 2nt after a negative
response, and thus with the actual hand I had, I was too strong for
that call.
It wasn't clear to me to bid 4s or 4nt, so I felt as though double was
my only option.
Not having encountered this situation before, I solicit input as to
how this situation is best resolved. If double is not available, is
this hand supposed to pass 4h? And if so, what is partner supposed to
do with
xxx
x
xxxx
xxxxx
double? if he is
xx
x
xxxxx
xxxxx
how does he show both minors? if he has
xxxx
x
xx
xxxxxx
is this also a balancing double of 4h?
Steven's contention is that if double shows a hand stronger than a 2nt
rebid, then what does opener do with
AQx
KT9x
AKx
AKx
Where you have no real chance to make 4nt on your own but you might
set 4hx 4 tricks if overcaller is 1=7=2=3 or 1=7=3=2.
Finally, for the curious, there was no psyche involved. Overcaller
had the QJTxxxxx hearts (and LHO had the QJTxxxx spades, so it was
fortunate that we didn't end in 4s).
Henrysun909
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