On Apr 22, 12:27=A0am, StevieTee <ste...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
> Hi Everyone!
>
> OK, you are playing IMP pairs, against opponents of unknown caliber
> (of course, they self-describe as "experts," for whatever that is
> worth), you pick up with all vulnerable:
>
> =A0 =A0 =A0 9
> =A0 =A0 =A0 10
> =A0 =A0 =A0 KQ932
> =A0 =A0 =A0 Q109654
>
> The bidding goes:
>
> =A0 =A0 Partner =A0 =A0 RHO =A0 =A0 You =A0 =A0 LHO
> =A0 =A0 =A0 =A02C* =A0 =A0 =A0 (pass) =A0 =A02D** =A0 (4H)
> =A0 =A0 =A0 DBL*** =A0 (pass) =A0 =A0??
>
> =A0 =A0 =A0* SAYC, strong
> =A0 =A0 ** 0 or 1 control
> =A0 =A0*** no agreement
>
> Do you pass or pull? =A0If you pull, what do you bid?
>
> Thanks in advance - Steve Sun
Pass, though it is not so obvious as others have said. Partner knows
you have at most one K. So he has the knowledge that your side does
not have slam, otherwise he would have made a forcing pass. Since you
cannot see making more than 5 of a minor, go with partner's judgment
that they are going for more than you can make on offense. You even
have more defense than you promised with your 2D bid.
It may happen that overcaller has an extreme distribution and they go
down 1, giving you a bad board. Tough.
BTW, I play that 2D shows 0-1 ctl with less than 5 HCP and 2H is 0-1
ctl with 5+ HCP. Makes it easier on opener to know what to do in this
case.
-Stu Goodgold
San Jose, CA
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